So this question may have already been addressed, but I thought I would see what people think. I found out recently that my ex-gf had an abnormal pap smear and apparently has high risk HPV. I had been with other people before, but she had not, so its clear she got it from me. I feel like this puts me in the somewhat unusual situation of being a late 20s male who has confirmation of high risk HPV (I've never had any other signs of warts, etc, and I've always tested clear for everything else).
Given the timing of my other relationships, I would have picked it up at least 2.5 years ago, probably 3+. I feel like I'm now in a no-win situation. I have no way of knowing if I still have it, though from what I've read on timing I've probably cleared it at this point. Plus, lots of other guys out there probably also have it...but unless they date virgins who happen to have an abnormal pap later (and tell them about it), they have no way of knowing.
I haven't dated anyone since finding out (been out of the country), but will be probably start again soon. Do I have to disclose? If I knew I had it, then I certainly would, but for something I may not even have, I feel like disclosing it may prevent relationships for no reason (especially if 50%+ of other guys have it but have no way of knowing). Thoughts???


